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Subject
22 questions
- Polity & Governance16 May 2026
Under the Dam Safety Act, 2021, which body is the central regulator for implementation of dam-safety policy across India?
- A.National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA)
- B.Central Water Commission (CWC)
- C.National Committee on Dam Safety (NCDS)
- D.National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
Show solution
Answer: A. National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA)
The **National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA)** is the central regulator under the Act, while **NCDS** evolves policy. The **CWC** advises Government on water resources but is not the statutory regulator. **NDMA** handles disasters in general, not dam-safety regulation.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance16 May 2026
Under the Dam Safety Act, 2021, willful obstruction or non-compliance with directions of dam-safety authorities can lead to:
- A.Imprisonment up to two years and/or fine, depending on the offence
- B.Only a monetary penalty with no imprisonment
- C.Only departmental action against State officials
- D.Civil compensation alone, no criminal liability
Show solution
Answer: A. Imprisonment up to two years and/or fine, depending on the offence
The Act includes **penal provisions**, allowing imprisonment (up to about two years) and/or fine for offences such as obstructing officials or non-compliance with safety directions, in addition to civil liability. Pure monetary or departmental remedies do not capture the Act's penal architecture.
Read source story → - Uncategorized16 May 2026
Iran's Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) was established to protect the country's Islamic system following which event?
- A.The 1979 Islamic Revolution in Iran
- B.The Iran–Iraq War of 1980–88
- C.The 1953 coup against Prime Minister Mosaddegh
- D.The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) in 2015
Show solution
Answer: A. The 1979 Islamic Revolution in Iran
The **IRGC** was created in **1979 after the Islamic Revolution** to protect the new revolutionary system. It commands separate land, air and sea forces and oversees the **Basij Resistance Force**, reporting directly to the Supreme Leader, independent of the regular Iranian military.
Read source story → - Uncategorized16 May 2026
The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was formally constituted in September 1928 at which place?
- A.Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi
- B.Lahore Central Jail, Punjab
- C.Allahabad, United Provinces
- D.Kanpur, United Provinces
Show solution
Answer: A. Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi
The **HSRA** was formed by reorganising the **Hindustan Republican Association** at a meeting at **Feroz Shah Kotla, Delhi** in September 1928. The other places — Lahore, Allahabad and Kanpur — were important revolutionary centres but not the venue of its formation.
Read source story → - Economy & Banking16 May 2026
Which of the following best explains how the BMI Pool reduces India's forex outflow?
- A.By retaining marine reinsurance premiums domestically that would otherwise flow to London and other foreign re/insurance markets
- B.By directly buying foreign currency from the RBI's reserves at concessional rates
- C.By imposing capital controls on Indian shipowners' foreign payments
- D.By replacing all FDI in India's shipping sector
Show solution
Answer: A. By retaining marine reinsurance premiums domestically that would otherwise flow to London and other foreign re/insurance markets
The Pool **retains domestically** a larger share of marine reinsurance premiums and claims flows that would otherwise be ceded to **London and other foreign re/insurance hubs**, reducing **forex outflow**. The other options describe instruments — capital controls, RBI FX sales, FDI — that are not how a reinsurance pool functions.
Read source story → - Economy & Banking16 May 2026
The Bharat Maritime Insurance Pool (BMI Pool) is administered as Pool Administrator by which entity?
- A.General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re), the country's state-owned reinsurer
- B.Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), the largest Indian life-insurance company
- C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the central banking authority of the Government of India
- D.Shipping Corporation of India (SCI), a navratna shipping company under the central government
Show solution
Answer: A. General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re), the country's state-owned reinsurer
The **Pool Administrator** of the BMI Pool is **GIC Re**, India's state-owned national reinsurer. **LIC** is a life insurer, **RBI** is the central bank, and **SCI** is a shipping operator — none of them administer the Pool.
Read source story → - Uncategorized16 May 2026
Which of the following best describes the legal character of the 'Lahore Conspiracy Case' under which Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were tried?
- A.A trial before a special tribunal constituted under a colonial ordinance, with curtailed defence rights and no right of appeal to the Privy Council on most issues
- B.A regular sessions trial under the Indian Penal Code with full appellate rights up to the Privy Council
- C.A purely military court-martial under British Army regulations
- D.A Federal Court reference under the Government of India Act, 1935
Show solution
Answer: A. A trial before a special tribunal constituted under a colonial ordinance, with curtailed defence rights and no right of appeal to the Privy Council on most issues
The **Lahore Conspiracy Case** was tried by a **special tribunal** set up under a **colonial ordinance** that **curtailed normal defence rights** and the trial was completed in the accused's absence at one stage. It was not a regular sessions trial, nor a court-martial, nor a Federal Court matter (the 1935 Act came later).
Read source story → - Uncategorized16 May 2026
Whose birth anniversary did India observe on 15 May 2026?
- A.Shaheed Sukhdev Thapar
- B.Shaheed Bhagat Singh
- C.Shivaram Rajguru
- D.Chandrashekhar Azad
Show solution
Answer: A. Shaheed Sukhdev Thapar
**Shaheed Sukhdev Thapar** was born on **15 May 1907** in Ludhiana, Punjab. **Bhagat Singh** was born on 28 September 1907, **Rajguru** on 24 August 1908, and **Chandrashekhar Azad** on 23 July 1906 — none on 15 May.
Read source story → - Uncategorized16 May 2026
Submarine (undersea) cables currently carry approximately what share of international data traffic?
- A.Between 95% and 99% of international data traffic
- B.Less than 40% of international data traffic
- C.About 25%, with satellites carrying most of the rest
- D.About 70%, with the remainder over high-altitude balloons
Show solution
Answer: A. Between 95% and 99% of international data traffic
Submarine cables carry **95–99% of international data traffic**, making them the backbone of the global internet. Satellites carry only a small share, mainly for last-mile or specialised connectivity. The other options understate cable dominance.
Read source story → - Uncategorized16 May 2026
From a strategic-defence perspective, which of the following best captures India's primary vulnerability arising from disruption to undersea cables in the Strait of Hormuz and Red Sea?
- A.Disruption of secure long-distance military and intelligence communications, plus financial and IT-BPM service flows
- B.Loss of nuclear command and control which is wholly dependent on undersea cables
- C.Inability to operate satellite-based PNT (positioning) services within Indian territory
- D.Direct kinetic threat to Indian naval assets stationed in the Persian Gulf
Show solution
Answer: A. Disruption of secure long-distance military and intelligence communications, plus financial and IT-BPM service flows
The primary vulnerability is **disruption to long-distance secure communications, intelligence sharing and India's IT-BPM and financial flows**, all of which transit cable corridors via Hormuz and the Red Sea. India's nuclear C2 has alternative redundant means; PNT is satellite-based; and direct kinetic threat to naval assets is a separate risk category, not cable-driven.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance16 May 2026
Which of the following is a key constitutional concern raised by some States against the Dam Safety Act, 2021?
- A.It allegedly encroaches upon 'Water' which is a State subject under Entry 17 of the State List
- B.It violates Article 21 by criminalising negligence by dam owners
- C.It overrides Article 19(1)(g) by restricting commercial use of reservoirs
- D.It conflicts with the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956
Show solution
Answer: A. It allegedly encroaches upon 'Water' which is a State subject under Entry 17 of the State List
The Act has been challenged by some States on the ground that **'Water'** falls under **Entry 17 of the State List**, and central regulation of State-owned dams allegedly encroaches on State legislative competence. The Centre defends the Act under entries linked to inter-State rivers and national disaster management. The other options are not the principal challenges.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance16 May 2026
India is currently the third-largest dam-owning country in the world, with how many specified large dams as per the National Register of Large Dams?
- A.About 6,628 specified dams
- B.About 4,500 specified dams
- C.About 9,200 specified dams
- D.About 3,300 specified dams
Show solution
Answer: A. About 6,628 specified dams
India has about **6,628 specified large dams**, ranking third globally after the **United States** and **China**. Around **98.5%** are State-owned, with **Maharashtra** holding the largest number. The other options misstate India's dam count.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance30 Apr 2026
Section 408 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the constitution of which body?
- A.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
- B.Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)
- C.Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)
- D.Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)
Show solution
Answer: A. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
**Section 408** establishes the **NCLT**. **SFIO** is constituted under Section 211. **IBBI** is established under Section 188 of the IBC, 2016. **SAT** is constituted under the SEBI Act, 1992 (Section 15K).
Read source story → - Polity & Governance29 Apr 2026
Which constitutional provisions provide protection in arrest, and what is the D K Basu (1996) ruling?
- A.Only Article 14 applies
- B.Article 22 provides procedural safeguards (right to know grounds; consult legal practitioner; production before nearest magistrate within 24 hours); Articles 21 and 14 add substantive protections; D K Basu vs State of West Bengal (1996) laid down 11 binding guidelines for police regarding arrest and detention to prevent custodial torture, including arrest memo, identity recording, medical examination, and intimation to family
- C.Article 19 alone covers arrest
- D.No constitutional safeguards exist
Show solution
Answer: B. Article 22 provides procedural safeguards (right to know grounds; consult legal practitioner; production before nearest magistrate within 24 hours); Articles 21 and 14 add substantive protections; D K Basu vs State of West Bengal (1996) laid down 11 binding guidelines for police regarding arrest and detention to prevent custodial torture, including arrest memo, identity recording, medical examination, and intimation to family
**Article 22** of the Constitution provides procedural safeguards in arrest: right to be informed of grounds, right to consult legal practitioner, and production before nearest magistrate within 24 hours (excluding journey time). **Article 21** provides substantive due-process protection (right to life and personal liberty), and **Article 14** provides equality before law. The Supreme Court's landmark ruling in **D K Basu vs State of West Bengal (1996)** laid down **11 binding guidelines** for police arrests and detentions to prevent custodial abuse — including arrest memo, identity recording, medical examination, and intimation to family. UAPA's **Section 43D(5)** further raises the bar for bail.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance29 Apr 2026
What is the constitutional and statutory framework for the right to education in India?
- A.Only Directive Principle Article 45 applies
- B.Constitutional foundation: Article 21A (inserted by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002, effective 1 April 2010) makes free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children aged 6-14; Article 45 (DPSP, amended 2002) directs State to provide early childhood care below 6; Article 51A(k) makes it a fundamental duty of parents to provide education; statutory operationalisation through RTE Act 2009 (effective 1 April 2010); Section 12(1)(c) mandates 25% quota in private unaided schools; Article 30 exempts unaided minority schools (per Pramati 2014)
- C.Only the RTE Act 2009 applies; no constitutional basis
- D.Education is a State subject only
Show solution
Answer: B. Constitutional foundation: Article 21A (inserted by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002, effective 1 April 2010) makes free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children aged 6-14; Article 45 (DPSP, amended 2002) directs State to provide early childhood care below 6; Article 51A(k) makes it a fundamental duty of parents to provide education; statutory operationalisation through RTE Act 2009 (effective 1 April 2010); Section 12(1)(c) mandates 25% quota in private unaided schools; Article 30 exempts unaided minority schools (per Pramati 2014)
The right to education in India has a **layered constitutional and statutory architecture**: **Article 21A** (inserted by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002; effective 1 April 2010) makes free and compulsory education a **fundamental right for children aged 6-14**. **Article 45** (DPSP) was amended to direct the State to provide early childhood care for children **below 6**. **Article 51A(k)** makes it a **fundamental duty of parents** to provide educational opportunities to children aged 6-14. The **RTE Act 2009** (effective 1 April 2010) operationalises Article 21A, with **Section 12(1)(c)** mandating the **25% quota** in private unaided schools. **Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust (2014)** held RTE inapplicable to **unaided minority schools** under **Article 30**.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance28 Apr 2026
Under which provision of the Domestic Violence Act 2005 are live-in relationships covered?
- A.Section 1(a) — definitions
- B.Section 2(f) — defines 'domestic relationship' to include those 'in the nature of marriage'
- C.Section 5(c) — protection orders
- D.Section 12(d) — residence orders
Show solution
Answer: B. Section 2(f) — defines 'domestic relationship' to include those 'in the nature of marriage'
**Section 2(f)** of the **Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005** defines 'domestic relationship' to include those 'in the nature of marriage'. The Supreme Court in **D Velusamy v D Patchaiammal (2010)** laid down five conditions for what qualifies as 'in the nature of marriage', refined further in **Indra Sarma v V K V Sarma (2013)** with an eight-feature test.
Read source story → - Uncategorized28 Apr 2026
Which Supreme Court case is the leading authority for reading the Right to Health into Article 21?
- A.Vishaka v State of Rajasthan (1997)
- B.Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity v State of West Bengal (1996)
- C.Olga Tellis v Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985)
- D.Indra Sawhney v Union of India (1992)
Show solution
Answer: B. Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity v State of West Bengal (1996)
**Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity v State of West Bengal (1996)** is the leading authority for reading the **Right to Health** into **Article 21** (Right to Life and Personal Liberty). The Supreme Court held that the state has an obligation to provide adequate medical facilities. **Vishaka (1997)** dealt with workplace sexual harassment guidelines (predecessor to the POSH Act 2013). **Olga Tellis** dealt with the right to livelihood; **Indra Sawhney** with reservations.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance27 Apr 2026
Which of the following Articles of the Constitution were ADDED by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 in connection with the Anti-Defection Law?
- A.Articles 102(2) and 191(2)
- B.Articles 75(1B), 164(1B), and 361B
- C.Articles 80 and 81
- D.Articles 105 and 194
Show solution
Answer: B. Articles 75(1B), 164(1B), and 361B
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 ADDED Articles 75(1B), 164(1B), and 361B. Article 75(1B) provides that a member disqualified under the Tenth Schedule cannot be appointed a Union Minister; Article 164(1B) provides the same for State Ministers; Article 361B provides that such disqualified members cannot hold any remunerative political post. Articles 102(2) and 191(2) provide for disqualification of MPs and MLAs respectively under the Tenth Schedule but were added by the 52nd Amendment 1985 (along with the Tenth Schedule itself).
Read source story → - Polity & Governance27 Apr 2026
In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), the Supreme Court of India struck down which Paragraph of the Tenth Schedule on the ground that it attempted to bar judicial review?
- A.Paragraph 1
- B.Paragraph 4
- C.Paragraph 7
- D.Paragraph 10
Show solution
Answer: C. Paragraph 7
In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), the Supreme Court struck down PARAGRAPH 7 of the Tenth Schedule, which had attempted to bar judicial review of the Speaker's decisions on disqualification. The Court held that this paragraph was unconstitutional because it offended the Court's powers under Articles 136, 226, and 227. The rest of the Tenth Schedule was held constitutionally valid. The Court also ruled that while deciding on disqualification, the Speaker acts as a tribunal.
Read source story → - Economy & Banking25 Apr 2026
After cancellation of a banking licence, RBI must approach which forum for winding-up proceedings?
- A.NCLT (National Company Law Tribunal)
- B.Supreme Court of India
- C.High Court (under BR Act Section 38)
- D.Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
Show solution
Answer: C. High Court (under BR Act Section 38)
Under Section 38 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the RBI must approach the High Court (having jurisdiction over the bank's registered office) for winding-up proceedings of a banking company. While the Companies Act, 2013 generally vests winding-up jurisdiction with the NCLT, banking company winding-up has a specific BR Act framework that retains High Court jurisdiction.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance25 Apr 2026
Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021, termination beyond 24 weeks for substantial foetal abnormalities requires approval from:
- A.Two Registered Medical Practitioners (RMPs)
- B.A Magistrate
- C.A Medical Board constituted by the State Government
- D.The Director of Health Services
Show solution
Answer: C. A Medical Board constituted by the State Government
Under the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2021, termination beyond 24 weeks for substantial foetal abnormalities requires approval from a Medical Board constituted by the State/UT Government. The Medical Board comprises a gynaecologist, paediatrician, radiologist/sonologist, and other notified specialists. Cases beyond 24 weeks for reasons other than foetal abnormalities (like the present minor's case) typically require court intervention.
Read source story → - Economy & Banking25 Apr 2026
RBI's power to cancel a banking licence is provided under which provision of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
- A.Section 22
- B.Section 35
- C.Section 36AB
- D.Section 38
Show solution
Answer: C. Section 36AB
Section 36AB of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (added by amendment) explicitly empowers the RBI to cancel a banking licence where the operations of the bank are detrimental to depositor interests or public interest. Section 22 provides for INITIAL ISSUANCE of banking licences; Section 35 governs INSPECTIONS; Section 38 deals with WINDING-UP PROCEEDINGS in the High Court.
Read source story →